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I have a question about where to use is and has You always use the root form of the verb i.e Tea is come or tea has come lunch is ready or lunch has ready he is come back or he has come back she is assigned for work or.
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The question asked covers more ground than just have or has But you don't use has with the auxiliary verb do, does or did in an interrogative or negative sentence I think op's example is just one example and the question asked is in order to know if who agrees with the verb when who is subject of this verb.
Can anyone tell me where we have to use has and where we have to use have
Can anyone explain me in a simple way? So yes, in these cases do becomes does for third person singular because it is finite. The subject of have is videos and pictures, which is a compound of two plural nouns The correct verb form is have
It has, and they have. What's the difference between i have been playing tennis for five years And i have played tennis for five years If yes, how are they different in meaning/nu.
What are the differences in meaning between the following sentences
All of the sentences below convey the meaning of compulsion of exercise to be carried out in three months The idiomatic way to ask is why has my order not been shipped out This is because, in statement form, the company has shipped your order, so your order has been shipped by the company (to make things more confusing, people do sometimes say the order shipped yesterday, using an active construction, but this is a rather slangy, informal usage.)
It is ungrammatical to use 'has' in questions that begin with 'do' or 'does' In these types of questions the verb 'do' is conjugated based on whether the noun is first, second or third person (eg do i, do you or , does he) The 'have' part of the question is not conjugated and appears as the bare infinitive regardless of the person of the noun.
